I'm not sure what point you were making, but I've extracted the following from the abstract of the paper:

"...When these overlooked phenomena are taken into account, we see that a null result, in the Michelson-Morley experiment, is the natural consequence, resulting from the assumption of an absolute frame of reference and Galilean transformations. On the contrary, a shift of the interference fringes would be required in order to support Einstein’s relativity. Therefore, for the last century, the relativity theory has been based on a misleading calculation."

Are you saying that a re-interpretation of the M-M results suggests that "the theory of relativity has been based on a misleading calculation"? If so, the moderators may consider that a separate topic?

My argument is that there is a discrepancy between the accepted interpretation of the M-M results and Einstein's application of them. If there is evidence that the M-M results were misinterpreted originally, it sounds like that could support Einstein's usage. I can't see how that suggests that "relativity theory has been based on a misleading calculation"? At least, not within the context of this thread.