seeing as the Mayan calander was found and translated (or described) in terms of Gergorian years well after the birth or death of christ, I don't see how it would make a difference one way or the other if we were off five years. Their calender is not based off him; what are the chances that their calander was also then started within 5 years of his birth? They just happened to start keeping track of years arround that same time? What were they basing their start of the year on?

I'd still say it's pretty safe to assume that when it's understood that the Mayan calendar runs out in 2012, that's OUR 2012 being used to describe that.

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I'm like one of those idiot savants...well, except for the savant part.
"In order to increase awareness of the homeless, security have been given binoculars."