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Old 27-February-2008, 11:25 AM
mike42 mike42 is offline
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Very nice essay indeed, CM! I was not doubting, that the precession was caused by a torque on the equatorial bulge, though.

One thing that puzzels me: for the torque you get an expression including sin(eps)*cos(eps), which makes sense to me. No torque for an axis "straight up" and also for "lying flat down". However you end up with only cos(eps) in your final precession rate. So you get a finite rate for a no-obliquity axis?

The cos(eps)/w part of your formula seconds my suspicion, that a retrograde rotating body (be it eps>90 deg or w<0) should have its axis "sweep the cone" counter-clockwise, right?
Say Venus, or does she have no precession at all due to the slow rotation?

Are there no values in the literature, at least for the major planets?

Mike
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