Quote:
Originally Posted by bart5050
No evidence of a "someone." The line of reasoning here is a converted conditional: if beings existed and engaged in such behavior, then such behavior from them would be consistent with malevolence. That is not, however, evidence of any actual malevolence because the motive depends on the existence of something to exhibit it.
Your analysis is interestig however since it is of ancedotal evidence which your reject as being possible to evaluate scientificly then your evaluation has no more validity than mine.
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My goodness.. this is even more silly than you saying "straw man!" on the most inopportune occasions. This "I'll use against you, what works against me"-stuff is becoming more hilarious each time I see it. And sad at the same time, since if you think the term "ancedotal evidence" applies here, do you even understand what it means when other use it appropriately? A question I fear will remain unanswered.