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Really, it has, the evidence is completely clear, simply review the thread. However, for some reason, the fact that this clear conclusion emerges in a way that the "politically correct movement" would like it to, somehow is supposed to imply that the conclusion itself stems from that movement. That simply is not logic, what more can I say.
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That you, personally, someone who is not at all moderate and is entirely a political correctness advocate, choose to throw out all evidence that contradicts your desired conclusion of 0 difference is entirely relevant.
I am not suggesting that "the political correctness movement" has cooked the books.
I am directly stating that you, Ken G, are biased, and as such you have dismissed all evidence presented that contradicts your wish for genetic equivalence.
What's more, you work with a double standard - you accuse those who see genetic difference of introducing evidence that is not valid based on the methodology involved, yet attempt to use
anecdotal evidence to support your own theory.
There is evidence that points to there being no difference.
But there is also evidence that points to there being significant genetic difference.
Your claiming that this thread overwhelmingly shows 0 genetic difference is simply false. Your wishful thinking will not make it so.
AT BEST the conclusion we'd have to draw here is that either the jury is still out, or, that ultimately it may be a little from Column A, a little from Column B.
IE, there are differences, but they are not as enormous as previously thought and easily surmountable with good education and encouragement. This applies to BOTH SEXES - meaning men can close the language, communication, and interpersonal relationships gap, and vice versa for the areas we have discussed (ad nauseum) for women.