You've peaked my curiosity here on one fact where I would ask for some minor clarification if I might. Aside from the majority of Tusen's mathematical equations (which blew my mind and I gave up before I got a headache) I've been following the greater portion of this discussion pretty well I think.

So my question revolves around one point made by PZK. In the graph you "drew" you showed that there would be no measurable decrease in the distance between two stellar objects adjacent to each other while on a parallel course to a single point in space.

I am confused by this statement.

It seems to me that while perhaps such a convergence would take an incredibly long time to occur over such a vast distance and from such a distant source there would have to be SOME movement of these objects toward each other until they were finally within each other's own gravitational forces. At which point... you know... bang, they collide. So is it perhaps more accurate to say that from such an incredible distance we would not SEE their motion toward each other but it was still present in an infinitesimal portion?

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