This should be in the "Against The Mainstream" forum.
Quote:
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Originally Posted by Luna2uno
Hypothetically, per Equivalence Principle, what would kilograms be for any given mass in a variable G?
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The Equivalence Principle says that the gravitational mass equals dynamical (a.k.a. inertial) mass.
It has nothing to do with the value of
G.
Newtons' formula for gravitation:
F = G * (m*M) / r^2 (1)
Newton's second law:
F = M * a (2)
Equivalence principle:
M in (1) is the same as
M in (2).
Quote:
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Originally Posted by Luna2uno
Asking it this way may be illustrated as follows:
We are in a region of space where G is much higher than here, say beyond the solar system somewhere. Let's say it's 10G. Then, per equivalence, what would the kilograms measuring mass, or inertia, be in that region? Would kilograms be 10 times greater than here, 10kg? Or perhaps 100 times greater?
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As I said,
1 kg gravitational mass is
1 kg inertial mass, whatever the value of
G.
What would change is the gravitational
force on the mass.
Quote:
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Originally Posted by Luna2uno
Think of this, and why I am bringing up this hypothetical question:
If G is 10 times what we know as the universal Newton's G, and the equivalence requires that inertial mass measured in kg is also 10 times, what happens to the kg in terms of what we know as measurement of mass here? So per equivalence, 10G gives us 10kg, but this may be only a local pehonomenon, meaning that 10kg in our kilograms may be 10 times that, viz. 100kg.
Is there an issue here, or kill the thread now? :roll:
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Well, I suggest you look up the threads in the "Against The Mainstream" forum where
Lunatik and
Jerry try to argue in favour of a variable
G.