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Originally Posted by nokton
Yes Fermats theorem has been proved, but not in the way Fermat
proved it, that is my contention, what method of evaluation did Fermat
realise his conclusion????
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This is an older thread (not too old, but the discussion seems to have died out).
Fermat probably did not actually prove it, but thought he did--other mathematicians since have thought they've proven it as well only to find mistakes. We don't know anything at all about his approach, he left no real record of it, although he worked on similar problems.