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Originally Posted by clj4
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(bold mine)
The 'refutation' of Sagnac experiment may be spurious, in that it involves 'renormalizing' relativistic proper Time, where the difference in 'travel time' is adjusted. In effect, we have time factor=(1-v^2/c^2)^1/2 in one direction, while we have time factor=(1+v^2/c^2)^1/2 in the counter direction. If you make 'proper Time' variable, you get around the fact that it will take less time in one direction and more time in the counterdirection. Or, as the paper referenced says:
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Of course, the result represents the time difference with respect to the axis-centered inertial frame. A clock attached to the perimeter of the ring would, according to special relativity, record a lesser time, by the factor y = (1-(v/c)2)1/2, so the Sagnac delay with respect to such a clock would be [4Aw/c2]/(1-(v/c)2)1/2. However, the characteristic frequency of a given light source co-moving with this clock would be greater, compared to its reduced value in terms of the axis-centered frame, by precisely the same factor, so the actual phase difference of the beams arriving at the receiver is invariant. (It's also worth noting that there is no Doppler shift involved in a Sagnac device, because each successive wave crest in a given direction travels the same distance from transmitter to receiver, and clocks at those points show the same lapse of proper time, both classically and in the context of special relativity.)
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Once you adjust Time, you get the relativistic effect desired. How can it be claimed to falsify the experiment, if the experiment is designed, using relativity, to achieve invariant results? The only clue you get something is variant (in Sagnac experiment) is in the Doppler lightshift.
That said, I stand to be corrected if I got it wrong.
