Originally Posted by clj4

This is clearly not the case, this concept (which belongs to Ritz) has been refuted experimentally multiple times in the past 100 years. You have been given ample proof in another thread, you are simply reopening the same discussion

Have we been conned by Einstein?

using an experiment (Sagnac) this time.
Here is one of the many refutations of the 'c+-v'.

http://imaginary_nematode.home.comca...echer_1977.pdf

Here is one of the many correct explanations of the Sagnac experiment:

http://www.mathpages.com/rr/s2-07/2-07.htm

You just opened another identical thread and you got plenty of explanations here:

http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=112002