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In the "relativity busted from the get-go?" thread, I came to the conclusion that if we are to conserve energy and momentum, then when particles are reflected off of a surface, the difference in their speed before and after they are reflected is twice that of the relative speed between them and the reflecting surface. So if we figure the reflecting surface to be travelling through a medium at a speed of v while the average speed of the particles in the medium is c, both relative to the medium itself, then particles will be reflected off of the front with a speed of c+2v and off of the back with a speed of c-2v. Figuring in for the angle of incidence, then, the reflected particles obtain a speed of c+2v*(cos L).
Okay. So let's say we have two equal masses travelling in a circle around each other through the force of gravity, and that gravity is created by some of the particles in the medium being absorbed by the other mass so that a lesser energy density, or negative pressure, is produced in the vicinity of the body where the difference with that of the medium reduces with the square of the distance from the center of the body that absorbs it. That amount of the pressure that is actually absorbed is extremely small. The remaining pressure that is not absorbed simply reflects off of the surfaces of particles in the body in all directions and is the vast majority of it. So first we have that amount of the pressure that would have normally reached the second body travelling at an average speed of c that has been reflected away. Two bodies of equal mass (and size and shape) should always feel the same force as the other at all times in the same way as they each induce the same forces upon each other. So the current positions of each should be on directly opposite sides of the circle of orbit. But it takes time for the particles reflected off of one (and the "holes" of those that have been absorbed) to travel to the other, so there is a propagation delay. The position each would currently "see" of the other is that where the other was when the particles began to travel from it. So instead of coordinates of (0,r), one body will see the other at (x,y), where x=(sin 2L)r and y=(cos 2L)r when L is the angle one body sees the other in respect to the origin, so 2L is the angle from the origin itself between that of the current and original positions. The distance travelled between the original position of the first body and the current position of the second is d=ct, where t=(2L/360)*2pir/v. The force that is received is proportional to the number of particles per distance times their energy, but the number per distance is also inversely proportional to their speed, so the force becomes just proportional to their momentum. The force of gravity toward the barycenter, then, is proportional to (y+r)/d^3. In the line of motion, it is x/d^3. Now, to find the angle for the original position of the first mass to the second, we solve for distance using d=ct and d^2=x^2+(y+r)^2. So ct=sqrt[x^2+(y+r)^2] c*[(2L/360)*2pir/v]=sqrt[((sin 2L)r)^2+((cos 2L)r+r)^2] c*[(2L/360)*2[i]pi/[i]r/v]=r*sqrt[2+2(cos 2L)] (c/v)*[(2L/360)*2pi]=sqrt[2(1+(cos 2L)] (v/c)=[(2L/360)*2pi]/sqrt[2(1+(cos 2L)] We have to find the angle the hard way with this but a simple computer program can find it easily and quickly as precisely as desired. This is for the amount of gravity that is kept from travelling to the second body by the first, relative to where the particles would have normally been relative to the medium. For those that are reflected, their speed is now relative to the body as well, so d=[c-2(cos (90-L))v]t and the angle is found by the same method as before, resulting in v/c=1 / [ sqrt[2(1+(cos 2L)] / [(2L/360)*2pi] + 2(cos (90-L)) ] This resulting angle is different from the other, because the particles travel also with the speed of the body during propagation, as if from the current position of the body if the body had continued in a straight-line path. We will designate these two angles as L1 and L2 (and 1 and 2 for all values in each set). That pressure which is originally blocked at an angle of L1 pulls the second body in that direction because of the greater pressure acting from the other side of the second body, but that pressure which is reflected at L2 helps to push it away, so the overall effect is the difference between the two, and in proportion to the speed of the particles in each case. So for the force in the line of motion, this becomes proportional to x1/d1^3 - (x2/d2^2)*[1-2*(cos (90-L1))v/c)] and toward the barycenter is (y1+r)/d1^3 - (y2+r)/d2^3*[1-2*(cos (90-L2))v/c)] I have made a computer program for the computations for this and found that for small v/c (anything less than about .1c), the force in the line of motion becomes proportional to -(v/c)^5 /3 and that toward the barycenter is (v/c)^2 /2. Figuring in also for the vectors when considering aberration due to the motion of the second body is rather complex, but I get -(v/c)^5 *6/41 in the line of motion and that toward the barycenter remains the same. Because of the complexity of attempting to figure in for the aberration, I have also tried a couple of other possibilities for the vectors involved and receive -(v/c)^5 *3/43 and (v/c)^2 /2, and -(v/c)^6 *2/145 and (v/c)^2 for the results. I will need someone that is good at finding which precise vectors I should use to help me with this. Well, that is as far as I have gotten so far, but I thought I should go ahead and post it. I'm not even sure where this might lead yet, but I'm still working on it. Maybe I can get some ideas from any questions and responses as to where I should go from here.
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Let's put together the pieces of The Grand Puzzle . (website - now revised) "Let's define another operator, Sz, which we won't pay any attention to." "This transformation will automatically make zero equal zero." "It may be true that zero equals zero -- and that is certainly an equality -- but I don't want to go into the details at this time." |
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Let's put together the pieces of The Grand Puzzle . (website - now revised) "Let's define another operator, Sz, which we won't pay any attention to." "This transformation will automatically make zero equal zero." "It may be true that zero equals zero -- and that is certainly an equality -- but I don't want to go into the details at this time." |
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Let the lock-down begin!!!
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° ° My invisible elf ??? Why he is made of dark matter and lives off of dark energy !!! ° ° |
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Grav, I see a few problems with your reasoning.
First, you made an approximation in your reasoning about the reflection. The twice the center of mass velocity change assumes that the stationary mass has an infinite mass. In this case, the change in KE and momentum of the stationary mass is 0 and the reflecting particle must have the same velocity leaving as it had coming. If you do the equations out fully, and use real masses, there will be at least a small change in the stationary masses' momentum. Second, if you are going to use relativistic particles, you must use the relativistic masses. This should make your infinite mass approximation even worse. Third, if your particle is actually travelling at c, then the reflected velocity will be c, both from the fron and the back. Fourth, if you do the special relativistic equations, then the conservation laws hold. Einstien was looking for a geometry where there was a fixed c that would obey conservation. Fifth, QM is inherently less certain than relativity. Uncertainty is a basic property of QM. It is also a property of the geometry of the system too. |
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Sorry I didn't reply to this sooner. I became enthralled in another thread and guess I forgot to check back on this one. You have some good insights in this post. Your comments should be helpful to me with this endeavor.
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v2'=(2m1*v1+m2*v2-m1*v2)/(m1+m2), where m2 and v2 are the initial mass and speed of the particle. I then figured the mass of the particle to be practically insignificant to that of the stationary mass, so used zero for the mass of the particle, giving me v2'=(2m1*v1+0-m1*v2)/(m1+0)=2*v1-v2=2v-c for the speed of the particle after the reflection, where c is the initial speed of the particle. Reflected at an angle, this becomes v2'=2(cos L)v-c. Now, as long as the speed of the particle is great and the mass is very small compared to that of the stationary body, the difference should be insignificant to the particle. But it would make a very slight difference on the stationary body, and the formula would then continully change as the body begins to decelerate in the line of motion, which is also what I am finding in this thread so far. I am only considering that for the instanteous velocities so far, though. Quote:
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So yes, relativity is probably a much neater way of doing things in many circumstances, since an overall assessment through some type of simple manipulation of the geometry would be much quicker and easier. But that also involves some methods that may not always be feasible, which sometimes includes using complex numbers as kind of a shortcut through the geometry that can often be misinterpreted. This way of doing things can be useful and often convenient, but I prefer to take the long way around. Even if it ends up being much more difficult than I can handle, I still believe it is the way to go.
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Let's put together the pieces of The Grand Puzzle . (website - now revised) "Let's define another operator, Sz, which we won't pay any attention to." "This transformation will automatically make zero equal zero." "It may be true that zero equals zero -- and that is certainly an equality -- but I don't want to go into the details at this time." |
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If the threads are limited on time, then I guess I will have to start thinking the subject through more thoroughly before I start a thread about it. That might help me become a more rigid thinker, but it will also take half of the fun out of it, for me, anyway. Part of what makes it interesting is to start with some general thoughts and see where it might lead. The replies I get usually help me to mold and shape those ideas into something tangible. That's how I make progress, especially when I'm stuck. Besides, if I have to think a subject all the way through before I post, then I would probably seldom post, since I actually rely on the help I get from other posters in most cases to think it through in the first place. A month does seem to be about as long as my threads run anyway, though, but my main concern is that someone might come along after that with some great insight to a problem that could change the shape of things, but they don't bother to post it because the thread is locked.
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Let's put together the pieces of The Grand Puzzle . (website - now revised) "Let's define another operator, Sz, which we won't pay any attention to." "This transformation will automatically make zero equal zero." "It may be true that zero equals zero -- and that is certainly an equality -- but I don't want to go into the details at this time." |
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I guess what I should say here is that I am not using relativity at all in this. I am attempting to use an "alternative approach", purely through quantum dynamic means, which may or may not produce the same results as relativity. My knowledge on this is limited, however, and I cannot seem to find many good references on the internet. I am mostly working with the Maxwell-Boltzmann formulas for speed distribution in gases and the Planck wavelength distribution formulas, but I'll probably need more than that. Does anybody know of any good easily accessible and easily understandable sites with other useful related formulas when considering a medium?
Well, I have a lot more work to do on this, and only about twenty-something odd days to do it in, so I'd better get at it. As it is, I might not make it. The clock's a' tickin'. ![]()
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Let's put together the pieces of The Grand Puzzle . (website - now revised) "Let's define another operator, Sz, which we won't pay any attention to." "This transformation will automatically make zero equal zero." "It may be true that zero equals zero -- and that is certainly an equality -- but I don't want to go into the details at this time." |
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grav. The coincidences between the Rome and Maryland bar gravitational wave detectors, and the IMB, Kamiokande, Mont Blanc and Baksan neutrino detectors seen during SN1987a, and published ~ 28 times indicate that they differed by ~ 2-3 seconds, and the clocks were not all on universal time.Distance to the Large Magellanic Cloud is ~ 170,000 light-years. seconds in a day..86,400 times 365.24 days times 170,000 minus 3 over 86,400 times 365.24 times 170,000 yields a gravitational effect and a neutrino velocity that are ~ 99.9999999999 c and 100% c. After 170,000 years they are no more than 3 seconds apart, and if somebody had their wristwatch Universal time synchronized,(IMB), they both might be perfectly c. There are those in the world of physics who believe those two velocities are close enough to call them both indistinguishable from c. That means there is no propagation delay whatsoever. Pete
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A third rate theory forbids. A second rate theory explains after the fact. A first rate theory predicts. A. Lomonosov |
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Let's put together the pieces of The Grand Puzzle . (website - now revised) "Let's define another operator, Sz, which we won't pay any attention to." "This transformation will automatically make zero equal zero." "It may be true that zero equals zero -- and that is certainly an equality -- but I don't want to go into the details at this time." |
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I'm sure you're right. I doubt if I am going to get too far with this before the deadline. It'll probably take me a while just to get the basics.
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Let's put together the pieces of The Grand Puzzle . (website - now revised) "Let's define another operator, Sz, which we won't pay any attention to." "This transformation will automatically make zero equal zero." "It may be true that zero equals zero -- and that is certainly an equality -- but I don't want to go into the details at this time." |
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I don't get it!!! If this 'particle' is traveling at 'c', if it is baryonic it WON"T reflect and if it is Non-baryonic it WON"T reflect, it will go right through ANY baryonic matter. Are you thinking that this 'particle' should be the 'carrier of light/photons? That would be correct, and then you have the 'particle/wave' duality...when the photon hits the mirror (we measure the wave), the infintesimal non-baryonic particle keeps going at "c".
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RussT ________________________________ Everything is, as it should be, otherwise, it wouldn't be! |
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Let's put together the pieces of The Grand Puzzle . (website - now revised) "Let's define another operator, Sz, which we won't pay any attention to." "This transformation will automatically make zero equal zero." "It may be true that zero equals zero -- and that is certainly an equality -- but I don't want to go into the details at this time." |
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Also, think of all of these going through YOUR body, and they are in absolutely prodigous amounts, every minute of every day of your life! The photons are 'massless' wave like quanta, riding the infitesimal 10^-33 particles that would be going in straight line motion in SR. With no gravity to curve the 'particles' and the particles traveling at "c" in EVERY direction, the 'particles' are bringing/carrying the photons straight to you, no matter where the light source is emitting them from. SO, if you shine a flashlight 'straight at a mirror, the particles are carrying that light to the mirror, the particles at "c" keep going through the mirror, the photons are reflected straight back at the flashlight with no scatter. SO, the particles at "c" just keep carrying the light to the mirror, and all just keep going as more at "c" keep coming to carry the light, while the photons just keep being reflected back and forth from the mirror to the glass of the flashlight.
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RussT ________________________________ Everything is, as it should be, otherwise, it wouldn't be! |
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Let's put together the pieces of The Grand Puzzle . (website - now revised) "Let's define another operator, Sz, which we won't pay any attention to." "This transformation will automatically make zero equal zero." "It may be true that zero equals zero -- and that is certainly an equality -- but I don't want to go into the details at this time." |
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Let's put together the pieces of The Grand Puzzle . (website - now revised) "Let's define another operator, Sz, which we won't pay any attention to." "This transformation will automatically make zero equal zero." "It may be true that zero equals zero -- and that is certainly an equality -- but I don't want to go into the details at this time." |
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The electrons "EMIT" the waves at the source (with a defined enegy level ie; eV, GeV, TeV) and those 'waves' are 'riding on', 'are being carried by' the Planck particles that are themselves traveling at "c", which is the mechanism for why light speed is "c". Quote:
Grav, remember way back when I said.........when does E NOT =mc^2 This is it, again. E does not = mc^2 FOR the 'base particle' that is the carrier of photons UNTIL those photons are being emitted at TeV energy level...pair production!!! At any lower energy level NOTHING of the energy of the 'base particle' is interacting with anything at all, that's why they are simply going right through ALL baryonic matter, including your body, and everything else in the room you are in, the earth...everything!!!! The Energy of Non-baryonic Dark Matter is "INERT" UNTIL TeV energy 'releases' the locked in energy and then you get pair prodiuction of E=mc^2 that is in that tiny infitesimal 'base particle'.
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RussT ________________________________ Everything is, as it should be, otherwise, it wouldn't be! |
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Moderators,
Could this thread be closed until I am ready to apply more research to it and then re-opened for the remaining time? It may take me a while to explore this further.
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Let's put together the pieces of The Grand Puzzle . (website - now revised) "Let's define another operator, Sz, which we won't pay any attention to." "This transformation will automatically make zero equal zero." "It may be true that zero equals zero -- and that is certainly an equality -- but I don't want to go into the details at this time." |
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