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  #61 (permalink)  
Old 11-July-2009, 07:17 PM
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Originally Posted by mahesh View Post
mugs, Indians, real, Asian ones, use English everyday too, and not only those working the call-centres.
True, true...

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For me, fluency in a language is reflected by one's ability to use puns in that particular language.
Punny...

In the human brain, the two areas which play a critical role in language are Broca's area and Wernicke's area. However, other areas are involved, as well, as the left hemisphere processes the linguistic meaning of prosody, while the right processes the emotions conveyed by prosody. Prosody is the rythm, stress, and intonation of connected speech, as opposed to smaller elements like syllables or words.

Broca's area is principally handles the more complex aspects of grammar, such as the difference between "the goat was kicked by Tom" and "the goat kicked Tom."

Wernicke's area is involved with both speech comprehension as well as in naming things.
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Old 12-July-2009, 09:16 AM
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Originally Posted by mugaliens View Post
In the human brain, the two areas which play a critical role in language are Broca's area and Wernicke's area. However, other areas are involved, as well, .
Have they identified clearly different areas for language and mathematical analysis?

ETA: the question seems ambiguous. I mean are the areas for language clearly different to those for maths?
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Old 12-July-2009, 10:59 AM
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Originally Posted by weatherc View Post
So, am I understand that there is some sort of spectrum that includes bantering and flaming? Does anyone have the maths or measurements to back up this claim? Maybe someone could reference a paper somewhere?
There was a lot of bantering and flaming in our garden the other day.The barbeque was a nice focal point for everyone.

Sorry, we neither bothered to measure the juicy marinaded bits being flamed, nor did I keep any maths for it. Let's just say it cost a few bucks.

I could've referenced a paper on it, but re-cycling took priority and paper away.

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I'm sorry, have I stumbled into the SNPBATPT thread by accident? Beg your pardon.
yah, I meant to ask what the initials mean. Pardon my ignorance.
I keep thinking snabbt, snabbt; hurry, step on it...
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Old 12-July-2009, 11:57 AM
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Originally Posted by mugaliens View Post
The vast majority of native-born English speakers are fluent in English.
If you replace "English" with "whatever bastar​dized version of the English languages is spoken in their neighborhood" and replace "fluent" with "can communicate verbally" you'd probably be closer.
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Old 12-July-2009, 02:45 PM
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If you replace "English" with "whatever bastar​dized version of the English languages is spoken in their neighborhood" and replace "fluent" with "can communicate verbally" you'd probably be closer.
I couldn't agree more. Living on a foreign island which is a popular holiday destination for the English, the 'English' I hear is hardly ever what I would understand as the English language, but a very primitive degenerate part of it pronounced very often with some unpleasant accent. Some British accents are in fact impenetrable for me. Sorry if that sounds elitist, but I am actually appalled at the poor standard of language spoken by your 'average Brit', something I was not really aware of when living in the UK.
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Old 12-July-2009, 03:10 PM
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Ordinarily, when a thread's original topic has been more than adequately covered, we'll let a thread drift where it will. Sometimes, the thread winds up adrift towards shoal waters, and we need to tack it back into the channel.

This thread has been drifting into partisan value-judgments. There be dragons. In particular, one called "Rule 12".

It's okay to chat about the importance of good grammar, and it's okay to talk about the apparent deterioration of communication skills in modern society in general and what might be done about it. It's not okay to wide-brush entire groups of people in such a discussion.
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Old 12-July-2009, 04:31 PM
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Have they identified clearly different areas for language and mathematical analysis?
Sources of Mathematical Thinking: Behavioral and Brain-Imaging Evidence ::: Abstract

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Does the human capacity for mathematical intuition depend on linguistic competence or on visuo-spatial representations? A series of behavioral and brain-imaging experiments provides evidence for both sources. Exact arithmetic is acquired in a language-specific format, transfers poorly to a different language or to novel facts, and recruits networks involved in word-association processes. In contrast, approximate arithmetic shows language independence, relies on a sense of numerical magnitudes, and recruits bilateral areas of the parietal lobes involved in visuo-spatial processing. Mathematical intuition may emerge from the interplay of these brain systems.
This title returned by a Google search functional mri mathematics probably has much to say in the PDF document, but it's a stale link: Functional brain imaging study of mathematical reasoning abilities ...

Wait. The view as HTML (link probably fragile) is still working, and probably provides enough to locate it:

Quote:
Functional brain imaging study of mathematical reasoning abilities in velocardiofacial syndrome
Stephan Eliez, MD, Christine M. Blasey, PhD, Vinod Menon, PhD, Christopher D. White, BA, J. Eric Schmitt, BS, and Allan L. Reiss, MD

Purpose: Children with velocardiofacial syndrome (VCFS) often have deficits in mathematical reasoning. Previous research has suggested that structural abnormalities in the parietal lobe region might underlie these deficits. Thepresent study utilized functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) to explore the relationship between brain function and mathematical performance in VCFS. Methods: Eight children with VCFS and eight comparison subjects underwent fMRI scanning and completed an arithmetic computation task. Results: In the VCFS group, increased activation was observed in the left supramarginal gyrus (LSMG) as the task difficulty increased. Conclusion: Aberrant LSMG activation, possibly due to structural deficits of the left parietal lobe, may explain decrements in arithmetic performance observed in VCFS. Genetics in Medicine, 2001:3(1):49–55.
Oh, this might be enough:

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Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) studies with “normal” subjects also have implicated several brain regions as being associated with arithmetic performance. 14,15 During “approximate” computation, brain activation has been observed in the bilateral inferior parietal lobule, right precuneus, bilateral precentral sulci, left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex, left superior prefrontal gyrus, left cerebellum, and left and right thalami. 15 During “exact” computation, activation has been reported in left and right prefrontal regions, left cingulategyrus, left precuneus, right parieto-occipital sulcus, left and right angular gyrus, and right middle temporal gyrus. 16 Despite considerable variability in regional patterns of activation, these imaging studies collectively suggest that both prefrontal and parietal cortices are involved in arithmetic tasks
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Old 12-July-2009, 08:51 PM
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Originally Posted by HenrikOlsen View Post
If you replace "English" with "whatever bastar​dized version of the English languages is spoken in their neighborhood" and replace "fluent" with "can communicate verbally" you'd probably be closer.
Thing is, these "bastar​dized versions" of English have their own vocabulary and grammar, and their speakers are indeed fluent in that vocabulary and grammar, in the sense that it "flows easily and readily from the tongue" (to paraphrase the relevant definition from the OED).
And such "native speakers" would readily identify you and Perikles as being non-fluent in their style of English, because of your limited vocabulary and distorted grammar.

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Old 12-July-2009, 11:22 PM
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Interesting, although I'm not sure I agree with your conclusion. If what you say is correct, then I must conclude I am not fluent in English. But I do think I am.

If someone were to ask me yesterday what a present particle was, I'd have been at a loss. I do know how to use one, but I couldn't explain why my choice of usage is correct.
Another example of correct usage was that very sentence that started "If someone were to ask me...", which is an example of the subjunctive tense. I don't know why I remember that from school (I only remember a few *formal* rules, but like you I seem to have a pretty good understanding of how to use English).

I have noticed that a sizable minority of people would have written "If someone was to ask me..." and it grates on me like fingernails on a chalkboard.

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Old 12-July-2009, 11:36 PM
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Originally Posted by grant hutchison View Post
And such "native speakers" would readily identify you and Perikles as being non-fluent in their style of English, because of your limited vocabulary and distorted grammar.

Grant Hutchison
I'll quite readily admit that.

I would however say that I consider the ability to communicate in writing to be part of fluency and that would be where many would fail.
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  #71 (permalink)  
Old 13-July-2009, 12:40 AM
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I would however say that I consider the ability to communicate in writing to be part of fluency and that would be where many would fail.
A number countable in billions worldwide, I suspect. Indeed, entire languages have come and gone without a single record written by a native speaker. Was no-one ever fluent in these languages?

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Old 13-July-2009, 01:36 AM
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It would depend on the language, but you really have to be able to write to be fluent in English, just as you need to be able to read, draw, and think pictures to be fluent in Geometry. You DO at least have to know that text message speak is not written English.

At one time, telegrams were a common mode of communication, and the charge was "per word". So, there was no advantage to writing "txt msg", but plenty of advantage of writing "tmessage", say. But as far as I know, kids didn't turn papers in to their teachers in telegraphese.

And those who communicate by radio, such as pilots, don't generally say, "Pass the Alpha wun steak sauce for my niner ounce steak".
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  #73 (permalink)  
Old 13-July-2009, 02:54 AM
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I'll quite readily admit that.

I would however say that I consider the ability to communicate in writing to be part of fluency and that would be where many would fail.
I strongly disagree! Many people who're fluent in a language can neither read nor write it, yet they're often hired as translators in light of their fluency not only in one language, but in two or more.

I believe you're confusing "fluency," which is defined as "capable of using a language easily and accurately" with "literacy," which means "able to read and write."

If you were to replace your use of the terms "fluent/fluency" in your previously preceding posts with the terms "literate/literacy," I believe you'd be much closer to the mark.
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Old 13-July-2009, 07:31 AM
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I agree with mugaliens. Fluency means it flows; when you're speaking another language, the word you need comes to you as you need it - you don't keep saying "err, umm" as you struggle to remember the word for "lampshade".
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Old 13-July-2009, 09:11 AM
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Another example of correct usage was that very sentence that started "If someone were to ask me...", which is an example of the subjunctive tense.
It is usually classified as a mood, one of the five attributes of a verb (number, person, voice, tense, mood).
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I have noticed that a sizable minority of people would have written "If someone was to ask me..." and it grates on me like fingernails on a chalkboard.
It grates on me too, but I would like to know whether this sizeable minority is in fact a majority these days, and I'm certain there are differences between UK and American in this respect. This is particularly interesting for me at present, learning Spanish and living in the back of beyond with locals who are, let's say, a long way from Madrid. Spanish has a very nicely developed subjunctive mood system which I can detect on TV and in books, but I can't detect it locally.
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Old 13-July-2009, 05:40 PM
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It grates on me too, but I would like to know whether this sizeable minority is in fact a majority these days, and I'm certain there are differences between UK and American in this respect.
Almost certainly and I don't think so. There isn't a difference in correctness between its use in British and American English, at least, though I'll admit my experiences with talking to British people in general are fewer and probably not representative.
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Old 13-July-2009, 06:05 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Henrik View Post
If you replace "English" with ...
Very observant, Henrik.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Perikles View Post
...poor standard of language spoken ...
Accents are fine, as they go, Perikles, it's the use of grammar, or lack of, that hurts to hear. On the street, I mean.


edit:
oops...missed a page.
i mean comments at #89 and #90, page three

inserting links...why do i keep thinking periwinkles...every time i see your name...peri...?
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  #78 (permalink)  
Old 13-July-2009, 06:28 PM
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Accents are fine, as they go, Perikles, it's the use of grammar, or lack of, that hurts to hear. On the street, I mean.
Good grief - I never meant that any dialect or any accent was per se in for criticism. It was the lack of grammar or simple inability to express oneself which hurts. The trouble is, I perceive there to be a correlation between accent and just bad grammar or inability to express oneself, but I'm inhibited about expounding lest I get ticked off again by a moderator.
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Old 13-July-2009, 07:20 PM
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... I'm inhibited about expounding lest I get ticked off again by a moderator.
Perhaps you meant 'kicked off'.
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Old 13-July-2009, 07:34 PM
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Perhaps you meant 'kicked off'.
British idiom: "ticked off" meaning "scolded". In potentially embarrassing contrast to the meaning in US idiom.
A "ticking off" is a reprimand, in the UK.

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Old 13-July-2009, 07:51 PM
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British idiom: "ticked off" meaning "scolded".
I did not know that. So what you are saying is that Perikles has a "simple inability to express oneself".
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Old 13-July-2009, 07:56 PM
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I did not know that. So what you are saying is that Perikles has a "simple inability to express oneself".
While being entirely fluent in his own idiom, yes.

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Old 13-July-2009, 08:12 PM
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I believe it George Bernard Shaw who defined Americans and British as "two peoples separated by a common language".
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Old 14-July-2009, 02:14 AM
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From what I've encountered here and across the pond, it sometimes seems were a common people separated by two languages.
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Old 14-July-2009, 08:58 AM
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I did not know that. So what you are saying is that Perikles has a "simple inability to express oneself".
Nice one - I had no idea the expression was so idiomatic. But it highlights an interesting point about an internet forum. Whenever I am aware that I am amongst people who do not have English as a mother tongue (and I mean English English) I have always consciously avoided idiomatic expressions (after an embarrassing meeting with some Germans once who had fluent English but were baffled by my claim that their argument was a red herring). Not only that, I always tried to modify my English according to where I was in the U.K. On a forum such as this one, the rules of engagement appear undefined, because unlike other forums (or fora) it does not appear to have an overwhelming flavour of a particular brand of English. Often, the only clue to a poster's origin is 'incorrect' spelling of a common word.
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Old 14-July-2009, 10:08 AM
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Nice one - I had no idea the expression was so idiomatic.
The particular danger is when the same phrase has different idiomatic usages, as in the case of "ticked off": an American reader thinks you're saying that a moderator has made you angry, rather than that a moderator has reprimanded you.
There are others: one that the nanny software renders as a string of asterisks, which means "drunk" in British English and "angry" in American English. And then there's the classic "to knock up", which means "to waken by knocking on the door" in British English, and "to make pregnant" in American English. I have an Australian colleague who uses "knocked up" to mean "tired out" or "ill", and I have no idea of the regional affiliations of "to knock up" meaning "to hastily assemble".

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Old 14-July-2009, 01:47 PM
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I believe there is a general tendency to be more careful with a foreign language than with one's own.
You may remember William F. Buckley, Jr., who seemed to speak English at a higher level than most of than most of the people with whom he argued. (In any event, he used bigger words.) Well, I read that he effectively learned English as a second language. He picked up Spanish first because his nanny spoke it (he was a rich kid).
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Old 14-July-2009, 02:26 PM
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Just some housekeeping. The thread's drifted far enough from the OP (Is BAUT for Experts Only?) that spinning this off into it's own thread and relocating it to OTB seems justified. Our own young thread, in a place all it's own. *sniff* I'm so proud.

Speaking of which, if anybody has a better title than the one I've given it on the spur of the moment, feel free to let me know.
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Old 14-July-2009, 02:29 PM
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Dialect can be a severe barrier to communication. When watching BBC or ABC reporters give the news, they speak in a non dialectical voice (? flat affect?)intentionally so as to communicate with the widest audience. Culturally induced dialects between two groups can cause distrust and rancor that can lead to the perception or reality of discrimination. There was a recent story in the news about a group of children of one ethnicity using a swimming pool that was of a different social group. Problems with the parents arose. A candid interview was given by one of the distressed parents. The parent expressed concern over his child "picking up" the vernacular of the other group. There was no concern amongst the parents of the other group of their children being exposed to the other dialect because it was common to experience both dialects in their environment. They just wanted equal access to the pool. The clash was primarily one of cultural language differentiating the two groups whose distinction was then relegated to a visual rather than a vocal cause. Whose fluency is correct? I do not have a solution.

The language of science used to be Latin. Communication was primarily written with the commonality of "tongue" fascillitating the spread of ideas. Now the language of science is English. The written form is non dialectical.
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Old 14-July-2009, 03:20 PM
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Dialect can be a severe barrier to communication. ... Culturally induced dialects between two groups can cause distrust and rancor that can lead to the perception or reality of discrimination.
I have firsthand experience of this. At the age of six my family moved from the south coast of England to Yorkshire. I was beaten up at school for 'talking posh' and I got into big trouble at home for adopting a Yorkshire accent. (It is a rather tender age for someone to conclude the world was insane, but experiences in the following half century have merely confirmed this view.) Anyway, my solution to the problem was simply not to speak much for a decade, after which I usually adopted the accent of whomever I was with, which was not always taken as a compliment.

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The language of science used to be Latin. ... Now the language of science is English. The written form is non dialectical.
Of course, Latin was used for any specialised area such as Law or the Catholic Church. Also, academic papers in the humanities as well, even into the 20th century.

By the way, in academic circles, someone used to be literate if they were fluent in Latin and Greek, and semi-literate if they had Latin but no Greek.
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