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Do you mean to imply that you believe everything you know about the universe is absolutely correct? If it was, I don't think it would be referred to as theory, as in electromagnetic theory. dictionary.com says theory means: 2. The branch of a science or art consisting of its explanatory statements, accepted principles, and methods of analysis, as opposed to practice: a fine musician who had never studied theory. I never studied music thoery, instead devised my own, and I can play guitar just as well as some people who have studied music theory. Sometime, I hope, better. :-({|= (I always wanted to use that one ) |
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What the non-scientist calls a theory, scientists might refer to as "conjecture" Quote:
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"I often say that when you can measure what you are speaking about, and express it in numbers, you know something about it; but when you cannot measure it, when you cannot express it in numbers, your knowledge is of a meagre and unsatisfactory kind." - William Thompson, 1st Baron Lord Kelvin "If it was so, it might be, and if it were so, it would be, but as it isn't, it ain't. That's logic!" - Tweedledee This isn't right. This isn't even wrong. - Wolfgang Pauli |
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"Conjecturists", I would be interested IYHO of Distinti's New Gravity, based on Distinti's New EM, a superset of the accepted theory.
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OK, I read the first few pages of the EM section. I'll take a look again tomorrow, but I'll tell you off the bat that I'm not impressed. We have someone trying to redo classical electrodynamics here. He uses a lot of technical terms, but I doubt he really understands them. As an example, on page 11 he "redefines" the Coulomb and Biot-Savart laws. Although he thinks he's creating a "new electro-magnetism all he's really doing is introducing a new set of units of his own creation. As an example, in coulomb "reformulation" he replaces the term (1/(4*pi*epsilon naught) with a new constant he calls K sub e. What's the difference? He replaces Faraday's law of induction with one of his own devising. It's really just a reformulation of Faraday's law with two components. Basically, he tries to rewrite Maxwell's equations in a more obtuse, confusing, and non-useful form. Then he has the gall to claim he has a better formulation than Maxwell did.
But aside from that, before he can claim to have made any improvements in EM theory he'll have to out-do quantum electrodynamics (QED). Can he predict the anomalous magnetic moment of the electron with his theory? QED has done this and many other predictions to precisions beyond that of current experiments to measure. Can he make any predictions that QED can't? I don't think so. In my brief perusal I can't see anywhere where the author tries to take QM into account and he'd need to do that to deal with these effects. For a short description of QED check out this link. Now I haven't read the paper in detail, and I'm just a simple experimentalist. I'll take another look tomorrow, but my guess is that my opinion won't be much different than my pal Wolfgang's. Edited once to add the link and to correct one mis-statement. Sorry. ops:
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"I often say that when you can measure what you are speaking about, and express it in numbers, you know something about it; but when you cannot measure it, when you cannot express it in numbers, your knowledge is of a meagre and unsatisfactory kind." - William Thompson, 1st Baron Lord Kelvin "If it was so, it might be, and if it were so, it would be, but as it isn't, it ain't. That's logic!" - Tweedledee This isn't right. This isn't even wrong. - Wolfgang Pauli |
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