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Old 01-April-2008, 12:31 PM
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Default A unified theory of everything! Is it really possible?

I was thinking about the unified theory of everything and began to wonder if it was really possible.
My reasoning is this:

We live in - for an anology - an apple universe! This means that everything we apply to understanding our universe involves apples! OK, a bit strange, but this seems the easiest way of explaining it.

So, our mathematic formulas are all geared to working with apples, and we get results that make sense and work with the observations that we see.
But, when we approach things like Black Holes and the very tiny we aren't using apples anymore, but - let us say - oranges.
Therefore the mathematics that we apply don't work because they can't - being callibrated to apples!

Now along comes quantum theory, and I think, is this truly orange mathematics or is it merely apple mathematics with a slightly tangy flavour?
Being which we get things like super string theory because we are still working, in essence, with apple mathematics. Ah, does my standing on super string theory show here? Ha!

Well, I don't think this multiverse theory with millions of universes on the m-brane is feasable, and the main reason for these theories is that we are still using apple mathematics with a slightly tangy flavour, which gives us hybrid results and not the true peel and pith of the orange.

So, back to the main question, a unified theory of everything would involve apples and oranges being smoothly linked together. Is this possible?
Or are we trying to apply apples with a slightly tangy flavour that we say is the truth, but, in reality, is still green with a solid core, with just more apples?

That would hint at unification because both are green with a solid core. They have common denominators to work with. Yet all you could really say about apples and oranges is that they both come from trees! Or, in this case, our universe.

So, what would orange mathematics be? Quantum theory seems to be heading that way, but has it really got there? And when it does, would its structure be so different from our apple mathematics that unification would be impossible?
Or am I barking up the wrong tree?
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Old 01-April-2008, 03:22 PM
Ivan Viehoff Ivan Viehoff is offline
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Suppose I'm a particle. Do I come along and say, "How do I feel like behaving at the moment? Shall I do the quantum trick or the relativity trick, exercising choice so as to make my behaviour unpredictable by any conceivable physical law even of a probabilisitic nature?" Or in fact is the way I behave completely described by some physical law(s)?

It seems likely to me that particles behave in accordance with physical laws which completely describe their behaviour, probabilitically as appropriate, in any circumstances. Whether we are capable of discovering/describing them is a separate matter.

Your apples and oranges didn't make much sense to me. Two "different" laws are actually two parts of the same law provided that there is a link between them saying when each applies in a complete and consistent manner.
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Old 01-April-2008, 04:17 PM
HypothesisTesting HypothesisTesting is offline
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Originally Posted by Fadingstar View Post
I was thinking about the unified theory of everything and began to wonder if it was really possible.

Or am I barking up the wrong tree?
Absolutely, it is possible so I don't think you're barking up the wrong tree.

But the unified theory should be a fundamental theory to explain all the forces/particles in one symmetrical theory. Many of these have been proposed such as "supersymmetry" and superstrings.

What I am becoming skeptical about is whether or not these theories will ever be VERIFIED by experiments. If they find the Higgs boson at CERN someday, that will pretty much prove the standard model. But they will have to discover a lot more particles to prove these other theories, and I'm not at all sure they ever will.

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Old 01-April-2008, 05:57 PM
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Suppose I'm a particle.
You are merely assuming what you are hoping to argue. If I say that you cannot "be a particle", because there is no such thing, how does your argument still proceed to unification?
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It seems likely to me that particles behave in accordance with physical laws which completely describe their behaviour, probabilitically as appropriate, in any circumstances.
But what a mouthful that "probabilistically as appropriate" part is! How does a particle "do something random" when it is "appropriate" to do so? We might be able to unify everything with which we are familiar, like probability concepts, but we will never unify everything there is. Does the thought ever become unified with that which is thinking it?
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Whether we are capable of discovering/describing them is a separate matter.
If we are not capable of unification, then we have no unification. How do we profit scientifically from imagining something exists that we are not capable of demonstrating exists? Like someone using the North star to navigate, we work for unification because that is the proper direction that science is pointed in, not because we think complete unification is attainable.
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Two "different" laws are actually two parts of the same law provided that there is a link between them saying when each applies in a complete and consistent manner.
Except for all the "cracks" that always remain, such as the need to apply boundary conditions to our equations, and the need to be able to design experiments within our technological and intellectual capability.
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Old 02-April-2008, 10:21 AM
Ivan Viehoff Ivan Viehoff is offline
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(1) You are merely assuming what you are hoping to argue. If I say that you cannot "be a particle", because there is no such thing, how does your argument still proceed to unification?
(2) But what a mouthful that "probabilistically as appropriate" part is! How does a particle "do something random" when it is "appropriate" to do so?
(3) We might be able to unify everything with which we are familiar, like probability concepts, but we will never unify everything there is. Does the thought ever become unified with that which is thinking it?
If we are not capable of unification, then we have no unification. How do we profit scientifically from imagining something exists that we are not capable of demonstrating exists? Like someone using the North star to navigate, we work for unification because that is the proper direction that science is pointed in, not because we think complete unification is attainable.
(4)Except for all the "cracks" that always remain, such as the need to apply boundary conditions to our equations, and the need to be able to design experiments within our technological and intellectual capability.
(1) No I'm not. Particles have been observed. To assert otherwise is either to argue for a nontestable theory of existence such as "reality doesn't exist, it's all a dream", or else is vexatious.
(2) So you don't like what I say because it's a mouthful. What kind of an argument is that? Quantum theory is described probabilistically, so I am saying nothing unusual or novel here. I didn't really need to say it, given that our existing theories are probabilistic, but I was predicting a common but fallacious objection before someone made it. (I have discovered the need to do that here).
(3) Pythagoras' theorem was there even before people discovered it. If we haven't yet discovered Pythagoras and I say that in principle geometry must exist, then I am saying "it exists because it is there to be found". You say "ah but if we don't find it then it doesn't exist for us", well, I don't think that is the kind of non-existence OP is interested in. Obviously it is unknowable whether we will ever find something, even if we can prove it is there to be found. Rather like the well-ordering of the reals that is predicted by an existence argument based upon the Axiom of Choice, but which no one thinks can ever be exhibited.
(4) I said "complete and consistent", ie no cracks. Electro-weak-strong unification which sticks 3 laws together without cracks. If there are actually cracks in reality, then there are situations when the particle doesn't "know" what to do. Which I think is nonsense, and that is the only real point I am making here.

Edit: In (3) the Axiom of Choice suggestion is not a good analogy on second thoughts. A better one is the Navier-Stokes equations, which we have found but can't solve. So we have a theory but can't use it. But the theory is still there.

Last edited by Ivan Viehoff; 02-April-2008 at 02:15 PM.. Reason: Given in edit.
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Old 02-April-2008, 03:24 PM
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(1) No I'm not. Particles have been observed. To assert otherwise is either to argue for a nontestable theory of existence such as "reality doesn't exist, it's all a dream", or else is vexatious.
Neither one, actually. Particles are models. What makes that obvious enough is that if you ask ten theoretical physicists in different subfields what a particle is, you will likely get 10 very different answers. This is what I mean when I say that you are assuming your argument when you assume a meaning for "particle", as if your own images around that word are the same thing as the reality. Your concept unifies your familiarities, someone else's unifies theirs. This is why I say that we can never unify everything that is real, because we will never have access to total familiarity.
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(2) So you don't like what I say because it's a mouthful. What kind of an argument is that?
That wasn't the argument part. The meaning of "mouthful" is that there is a lot behind the words that is being glossed over. What is being glossed over was the argument part.
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Quantum theory is described probabilistically, so I am saying nothing unusual or novel here.
My point is that one of the great efforts at unification that occurs is the effort to unify what appears to be a random outcome with underlying causal factors. If you are willing to leave that step out, as most quantum mechanics is formulated to do, then you have not unified everything and cannot use it in an argument that everything is unifiable. Personally, I have no problem with leaving the probabilistic aspects ununified, but then I'm arguing that complete unification is as impossible as walking north to Polaris.
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I didn't really need to say it, given that our existing theories are probabilistic, but I was predicting a common but fallacious objection before someone made it.
Our "existing theories" are ununified! Ergo, citing aspects of current theories is not an argument for unifications that have not yet been achieved.
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If we haven't yet discovered Pythagoras and I say that in principle geometry must exist, then I am saying "it exists because it is there to be found".
But how do you know what is there to be found until you find it? Again you are simply imposing your philosophy on your argument, and then extracting as conclusions what you put in as assumptions. You define "what exists is what is there to be found", then argue from that definition of existence that everything that exists is there for us to find. It's circular reasoning. Science normally differentiates what exists from our best descriptions of it, and for good reason, especially if one is wondering what is unifiable.
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You say "ah but if we don't find it then it doesn't exist for us", well, I don't think that is the kind of non-existence OP is interested in.
Actually, I say neither that we what don't find doesn't exist, nor that everything that exists is there for us to find. Either claim would beg the issue at hand, which is what we can find and unify out of what exists. I am using words that leave the question open, you are using words that simply assume your conclusions and then use them to reach those conclusions.
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Obviously it is unknowable whether we will ever find something, even if we can prove it is there to be found. Rather like the well-ordering of the reals that is predicted by an existence argument based upon the Axiom of Choice, but which no one thinks can ever be exhibited.
Axiomatic systems are the perfect example of finding the ramifications of your own assumptions. The effort to understand reality is not like that, because reality is not subject to our choice of axioms, but rather the other way around. Mathematicians are not used to that state of affairs!
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(4) I said "complete and consistent", ie no cracks. Electro-weak-strong unification which sticks 3 laws together without cracks.
There are always cracks, which have to do with connecting the axiomatic structures to reality. This is the part of physics that a lot of people don't seem to recognize. The way it works is, we form an axiomatic structure of some kind to be able to draw on its consistency and provability. This is generally called "idealization", and there is no axiomatic structure for choosing idealizations, that's the art of physics (that often gets overlooked even though it is always the first step.) We then confront that axiomatic system with observations to see how useful that consistency and provability are in practice. That process involves all kinds of "cracks", because it has the "fingerprints of the practitioner" all over it. The first, and most important, fingerprint is the choice of the axioms in the first place. The meaning of "particle" is a perfect example of this-- different practitioners with different goals will adopt different axioms around the meaning of a particle, from classical descriptions, to the way the term is used in elementary quantum mechanics, to how it is used in field theory, string theory, or even abstract mathematical formulations. All different, involving different idealizations, different accuracy, and requiring different information to analyze.

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If there are actually cracks in reality, then there are situations when the particle doesn't "know" what to do. Which I think is nonsense, and that is the only real point I am making here.
The cracks I refer to are not in reality, they are in our understanding about reality. We cannot discuss the unification of the former directly, as unification exists in the latter and extends by implication to the former. Hence our discussion is not about reality, it is about the axiomatic systems we invent to describe reality. The distinction is usually ignorable, but only at our peril in discussions that try to get to the heart of what science can achieve.
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Edit: In (3) the Axiom of Choice suggestion is not a good analogy on second thoughts. A better one is the Navier-Stokes equations, which we have found but can't solve. So we have a theory but can't use it. But the theory is still there.
We have no disagreement that the theory is there.

Last edited by Ken G; 02-April-2008 at 03:47 PM..
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Old 02-April-2008, 04:41 PM
Ivan Viehoff Ivan Viehoff is offline
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But how do you know what is there to be found until you find it?
I was asserting that IF I have good reason to believe that it MUST exist, then it exists even though I haven't exhibited (ie found) it.

You seem to accept that with Navier Stokes. You seem happy to accept that there is a solution that describes the behaviour of (eg) a mountain stream, even though no one can exhibit that solution. A mountain stream run again with the same boundary conditions would behave the same way, obeying the Navier Stokes law. The Navier Stokes equations provides an existence argument for the solution, even though we can't exhibit such a solution.

I will go a step further. I would argue that we knew that a theory of fluid dynamics must exist even if we hadn't actually discovered the Navier Stokes equations yet, and did not know if we ever would. Because if we run fluid systems again, they respond to the same causes in the way. To assert otherwise is to give the objects in physics some indeterminism that smacks of religion (the god of gaps as Dawkins calls it).

That is in effect my position. To summarise it, if effect follows reliably from cause (which includes effects described probabilistically, which most people are happy with accepting would constitute a valid scientific theory, even if you aren't) then there must exist in principle a description of how the effect depends upon the causes. I never sought to say we would actually find it, in fact I explicitly said we might not.
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Old 02-April-2008, 07:31 PM
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I was asserting that IF I have good reason to believe that it MUST exist, then it exists even though I haven't exhibited (ie found) it.
What is a good reason to believe something must exist? And what is the "it" in your last statement, other than "that which exists"? Unless you can offer a different meaning for that word, you are saying that "that which exists does so even if I haven't found it". I can't disagree with that, but it certainly doesn't tell us anything about the prospects for unification.
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A
mountain stream run again with the same boundary conditions would behave the same way, obeying the Navier Stokes law.
When we say something "obeys" an equation, we are using imprecise colorful language that we can normally get away with, but not when we are trying to look deeply into what science is. Mountain streams don't "obey" anything, that is a personalization-- they just are. It is we who decide what they "obey", when we decide how we will treat them and what we will consider to be "suitably law abiding" behavior. And when the behavior does not obey our laws, we don't throw the system in jail, we just change our sense of what the laws are. Fingerprints all over the "crime scene".

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The Navier Stokes equations provides an existence argument for the solution, even though we can't exhibit such a solution.
Again that is simply confusing the axiomatic system we invented to describe the behavior for the behavior itself.
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I will go a step further. I would argue that we knew that a theory of fluid dynamics must exist even if we hadn't actually discovered the Navier Stokes equations yet, and did not know if we ever would. Because if we run fluid systems again, they respond to the same causes in the way.
Of course theories of fluid dynamics exist, that became true as soon as our brains developed enough to count as able to make theories.
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That is in effect my position. To summarise it, if effect follows reliably from cause (which includes effects described probabilistically, which most people are happy with accepting would constitute a valid scientific theory, even if you aren't) then there must exist in principle a description of how the effect depends upon the causes. I never sought to say we would actually find it, in fact I explicitly said we might not.
But there are many such descriptions, and we have found plenty already. The issue is not if there are ways of describing reality, the issue is how completely unified can they be. Reality does what it does, all we do is assemble familiarities and try to unify them into what we can call an explanation. To think we are doing something different is to lose track of the process and mistake reality for our own language about reality. Our goal is certainly to seek unification whereever we can find it, but the absence of complete unification is a natural consequence of using language to describe something that is not language.
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Old 03-April-2008, 09:19 AM
Ivan Viehoff Ivan Viehoff is offline
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Ken, you have now explicitly agreed with the totality of the limited point I am trying to make, even if apparently you didn't like some of the way I couched it. Evidently what you are trying to say is something different.
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Old 03-April-2008, 03:05 PM
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It seems likely to me that particles behave in accordance with physical laws which completely describe their behaviour, probabilitically as appropriate, in any circumstances. Whether we are capable of discovering/describing them is a separate matter
It is interesting that you would claim that I agree with everything you said, because to me this statement is the core of your position, and I have advanced an argument to point out the flaws in this position. Particles don't behave in accordance with laws, we create an axiomatic system that creates both the concept of particles and the concept of laws, so we are of course capable of discovering/describing them, we created the concepts. When we are done creating the concepts, we evaluate their usefulness in understanding reality, and iterate the process, but if we lose track along the way of the difference between our mental constructions and reality, we are led to make unsupportable claims like "everything is unifiable". To me that position seems completely counter to the one you were advancing, so I guess we'll have to agree to disagree on whether or not we agree!
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Old 04-April-2008, 01:21 AM
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It is interesting that you would claim that I agree with everything you said, because to me this statement is the core of your position, and I have advanced an argument to point out the flaws in this position. Particles don't behave in accordance with laws, we create an axiomatic system that creates both the concept of particles and the concept of laws, so we are of course capable of discovering/describing them, we created the concepts. When we are done creating the concepts, we evaluate their usefulness in understanding reality, and iterate the process, but if we lose track along the way of the difference between our mental constructions and reality, we are led to make unsupportable claims like "everything is unifiable". To me that position seems completely counter to the one you were advancing, so I guess we'll have to agree to disagree on whether or not we agree!
KenG. I agree. pete
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Old 04-April-2008, 12:03 PM
Ivan Viehoff Ivan Viehoff is offline
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It is interesting that you would claim that I agree with everything you said, because to me this statement is the core of your position, and I have advanced an argument to point out the flaws in this position. Particles don't behave in accordance with laws, we create an axiomatic system that creates both the concept of particles and the concept of laws, so we are of course capable of discovering/describing them, we created the concepts. When we are done creating the concepts, we evaluate their usefulness in understanding reality, and iterate the process, but if we lose track along the way of the difference between our mental constructions and reality, we are led to make unsupportable claims like "everything is unifiable". To me that position seems completely counter to the one you were advancing, so I guess we'll have to agree to disagree on whether or not we agree!
I thought, when I stated precisely the same view, but using the example of fluid dynamics (ie a theory we already have, but pretending we didn't have it yet) rather than particle physics, that you had overtly assented to exactly my point. Although I did notice (but chose to ignore) you added some stuff afterwards which seemed to contradict yourself.

I don't think we need to agree to disagree ... yet. You have now made yourself sufficiently clear (at last) I think I can see why you seemed to agree with me but persist in saying you don't.

You say that "particles don't behave in accordance with laws...". I would like to propose that I might from time to time quote you on that, for example as follows: "Ken has said elsewhere 'particles don't behave in accordance with laws...' (precise quotation). Just so you know where he is coming from in general."

But it is a quote out of context. When I say "particles do behave in accordance with laws" I think I am actually using my words with different meanings from when you apparently say the opposite. I think I am actually saying the thing you do believe. And you are saying something that I think is a fairly pointless philosphical quibble, though please go ahead and enjoy yourself making it. When I read what you say about axioms etc, I actually make similar points myself in another thread about is mathematics true. But I don't feel the need to worry about it, as you clearly do. Whether particles "exist" or not, or whether my "particle" is actually a model in an axiomatic system or not, who cares, in my view. I'm a "just do the sums and don't worry about what it really is" man.

In science the only thing that objectively exist are measurements. Theories explain measurements (Popper). So when I say "particles do behave in accordance with laws" what I am actually saying is that "measurements we make can be explained in accordance with laws, and given measured initial conditions, measured later conditions will reliably behave the same way each time, so that in principle laws exist even if we haven't found them yet". As to what the thing is that actually is being measured, well sages, priests and philosophers can argue about that, to no useful purpose in my view. Measurements is all we will ever really have, and I do believe that the measurements will show reliable and repeated behaviour. To deny that is to deny the possibility of reliable scientific laws in a Popperian sense. I don't think you are going that far.

Last edited by Ivan Viehoff; 04-April-2008 at 12:04 PM.. Reason: clarification of wording
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Old 04-April-2008, 03:43 PM
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I thought, when I stated precisely the same view, but using the example of fluid dynamics (ie a theory we already have, but pretending we didn't have it yet) rather than particle physics, that you had overtly assented to exactly my point. Although I did notice (but chose to ignore) you added some stuff afterwards which seemed to contradict yourself.
If your point is that our theories don't directly affect reality, we can agree on the truth of that, but not its relevance to the OP. The issue is, can our theories completely unify everything that happens.
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You say that "particles don't behave in accordance with laws...". I would like to propose that I might from time to time quote you on that, for example as follows: "Ken has said elsewhere 'particles don't behave in accordance with laws...' (precise quotation). Just so you know where he is coming from in general."
I thought I was perfectly clear in this thread, for example (added bolds):

Quote:
Originally Posted by KenG
Hence our discussion is not about reality, it is about the axiomatic systems we invent to describe reality. The distinction is usually ignorable, but only at our peril in discussions that try to get to the heart of what science can achieve.
and

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Originally Posted by KenG
Science normally differentiates what exists from our best descriptions of it, and for good reason, especially if one is wondering what is unifiable.
If you want to quote me out of context, you will be engaging in logical fallacy.
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I think I am actually saying the thing you do believe. And you are saying something that I think is a fairly pointless philosphical quibble, though please go ahead and enjoy yourself making it.
I think you are forgetting the entire purpose of the debate: to establish whether or not we should expect reality to be completely unifiable. News flash: that is a philosophical topic! If you didn't want to address "philosophical quibble", why did you assert an arbitrary position in the first place?
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When I read what you say about axioms etc, I actually make similar points myself in another thread about is mathematics true. But I don't feel the need to worry about it, as you clearly do.
Same question as above. But I'm glad we agree on the difference between what is "true" and what "stems from the axioms", an important distinction I have also made on other threads. But this thread is about whether or not we can make an axiomatic system that is complete in its application to reality-- something we cannot do in regard to the real numbers. You are therefore arguing that reality is less rich than the real numbers, whereas I argue that at best we can hope that its projection onto objective measurement is less rich than the reals, but I don't see why we should expect that projection to maintain a complete axiomatic structure in the first place.

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Whether particles "exist" or not, or whether my "particle" is actually a model in an axiomatic system or not, who cares, in my view.
Obviously the answer as to whether or not we should care about that distinction depends on the context of interest. When the context is "is a unified theory of everything possible", I can hardly see why that would not be an important issue.
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I'm a "just do the sums and don't worry about what it really is" man.
A perfectly valid view-- but why did it lead you to post on this thread? If that was really your position, the answer to the OP is "who knows-- I just calculate".
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In science the only thing that objectively exist are measurements.
Then we agree on the meaning of "objective existence".
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So when I say "particles do behave in accordance with laws" what I am actually saying is that "measurements we make can be explained in accordance with laws, and given measured initial conditions, measured later conditions will reliably behave the same way each time, so that in principle laws exist even if we haven't found them yet".
So then what you are actually saying is that "everything is unifiable because it behaves consistently, whether or not it is possible for us to find unifiable laws". You are simply assuming that "unifiable" may be equated with "behaves consistently", whereas I see those as completely different issues.

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Measurements is all we will ever really have, and I do believe that the measurements will show reliable and repeated behaviour. To deny that is to deny the possibility of reliable scientific laws in a Popperian sense.
Why would I deny it? That is essentially the point I've been making. Yet I claim it leads to "we should not expect everything to be unifiable", and you claim the same thing leads to "we should expect everything to be unifiable, even if we can't do it". Personally, I think that if we can't do something, then that's the definition of "not possible" for us, which I think is what the OP was asking.

Last edited by Ken G; 04-April-2008 at 04:03 PM..
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Old 04-April-2008, 04:15 PM
Ivan Viehoff Ivan Viehoff is offline
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Ken, You have now characterised my views quite accurately, including what I think of "unifiable". I thought that was relevant to what OP was asking, but then what he wrote wasn't very clear.

So it was all a semantic mess-up between us. I'm pleased about that. I misunderstood you so badly until your last post that I was starting think you were taking a counter-scientific position, as you probably noticed. Pleased I was wrong about that.

As I said, OP's thread was not the clearest. He hasn't been back to clarify, and I don't blame him. Given we each had difficulty understanding the other, lord help poor OP.
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Old 04-April-2008, 04:26 PM
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Whether particles "exist" or not, or whether my "particle" is actually a model in an axiomatic system or not, who cares, in my view. I'm a "just do the sums and don't worry about what it really is" man.

....As to what the thing is that actually is being measured, well sages, priests and philosophers can argue about that, to no useful purpose in my view.
I agree that what the "particle actually is" falls outside of physics and is best left to philosophy. It is only when (or if) physics attaches an ultimate reality to such entities that we should start to worry about what this means. As long as physicists are clear in what they mean by "particles" then there is no danger of any misrepresentation in the manner that I thought may have been the case here:

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(1) ....Particles have been observed. To assert otherwise is either to argue for a nontestable theory of existence such as "reality doesn't exist, it's all a dream", or else is vexatious.
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Old 04-April-2008, 04:30 PM
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Ken, You have now characterised my views quite accurately, including what I think of "unifiable". I thought that was relevant to what OP was asking, but then what he wrote wasn't very clear.
Then it seems we have been simply talking about different things. Hopefully the discussion has nevertheless served to underscore various different issues to bear in mind, which is really the only point anyway-- the OP doesn't have "a correct answer" as it's not even possible to specify with precision what is being asked.
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So it was all a semantic mess-up between us. I'm pleased about that. I misunderstood you so badly until your last post that I was starting think you were taking a counter-scientific position, as you probably noticed. Pleased I was wrong about that.
Yes, I view my stance as highly pro-science, but in a narrowly defined realm of the aspects of science that are demonstrably useful rather than philosophically beguiling.
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As I said, OP's thread was not the clearest. He hasn't been back to clarify, and I don't blame him. Given we each had difficulty understanding the other, lord help poor OP.
She can help us all, and while she's at it, maybe she can help us figure out why axiomatic systems work at all. To me, this is the greatest mystery of all, but I simply note that the logic one often finds is "axiomatic systems work very well when confronted with the objective footprint of reality, and better and better with the sophistication of the axioms, therefore all reality is axiomatic to the point of complete unification". The last step in that syllogism is a logical fallacy, so it's odd that mathematical physicists, who are normally exquisitely logical, invoke the argument tacitly in so many places. I prefer those who stick to the logically supportable position that following the North star is a way to go north, not a way to go to Polaris.
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Old 04-April-2008, 05:59 PM
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I was thinking about the unified theory of everything and began to wonder if it was really possible.
My reasoning is this:

We live in - for an anology - an apple universe! This means that everything we apply to understanding our universe involves apples! OK, a bit strange, but this seems the easiest way of explaining it.

So, our mathematic formulas are all geared to working with apples, and we get results that make sense and work with the observations that we see.
But, when we approach things like Black Holes and the very tiny we aren't using apples anymore, but - let us say - oranges.
Therefore the mathematics that we apply don't work because they can't - being callibrated to apples!
All we have to do is come up with the mango mathematics that can!
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Old 04-April-2008, 09:14 PM
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I was thinking about the unified theory of everything and began to wonder if it was really possible.
My reasoning is this:

We live in - for an anology - an apple universe! This means that everything we apply to understanding our universe involves apples! OK, a bit strange, but this seems the easiest way of explaining it.

So, our mathematic formulas are all geared to working with apples, and we get results that make sense and work with the observations that we see.
But, when we approach things like Black Holes and the very tiny we aren't using apples anymore, but - let us say - oranges.
Therefore the mathematics that we apply don't work because they can't - being callibrated to apples!

Now along comes quantum theory, and I think, is this truly orange mathematics or is it merely apple mathematics with a slightly tangy flavour?
Being which we get things like super string theory because we are still working, in essence, with apple mathematics. Ah, does my standing on super string theory show here? Ha!
Our situation is actually worse.
We're living in a universe where all we can figure out is that if we look at in at one scale it behaves like apples.
Amazingly like apples, every test we've made on that scale points to apples.
Unfortunately on another scale it acts like oranges.
Amazingly like oranges, every test we've made on that scale points to oranges.

The two ways of looking at things(Quantum Mechanics or rather it's successor Quantum Electrodynamics and General Relativity) has so far been mathematically irreconcilable, though both works extremely well in the realm they're created in.

QED(your quantum theory) is truly orange mathematics, it stands by itself with some very impressive confirmed predictions.

The super string hypothesis(it's not a theory) is one attempt at making a model that includes everything described by the other two.
Since they have so far been unable to get it to a point where it can be used for predictions that can be used to test it, it's anyone's guess if it'll ever become a theory.

If you can get them, perhaps at the library, try reading Feynmann's "Six Easy Pieces" and "Six Not So Easy Pieces", or if you're feeling adventurous, go for "The Feynman Lectures on Physics".
They'll give a reasonable basis to build on.
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Old 05-April-2008, 11:56 PM
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Thanks for all the replies. My OP was not a question as such, but rather a query to the reality of a unified theory. I was watching a program on tv where a few scientists, including Prof. Hawkins, believed that a unified theory was not far away. But considering the differences in the structure of QM and GR, I was left wondering if this was actually attainable.
It may be that rather than one unified theory we could end up with two theories that can be crossed over. Like changing at Clapham!
The fact that one does not impinge its rules on the other may also be telling us that this is so.
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Old 06-April-2008, 04:44 PM
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I don't believe in mathematics. Albert Einstein
BTW, this is an interesting quote, maybe even on topic I looked around, and some webpages say it is unsourced, others say it appears in Carl Seelig's book Albert Einstein. Does anybody know the context in that book, if it does appear there?
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Old 06-April-2008, 07:48 PM
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BTW, this is an interesting quote, maybe even on topic I looked around, and some webpages say it is unsourced, others say it appears in Carl Seelig's book Albert Einstein. Does anybody know the context in that book, if it does appear there?
I can't say anything about that book or the context of the quote, but from other Einstein quotes, I think he was being facetious. He has one quote where he says he understood relativity until the mathematicians got ahold of it, and another where he claims to be a worse mathematician than almost anyone. Yet he also has quotes where he recognizes how crucial mathematics is to science, and of course he relied on calculus and analytic geometry extensively. So I think he likes to poke fun at how mathematicians change the sound of everything to embed it in a much more abstract space than physicists are used to, but he knows how much physics relies on mathematics.
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Old 06-April-2008, 09:02 PM
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It may be that rather than one unified theory we could end up with two theories that can be crossed over. Like changing at Clapham!
The fact that one does not impinge its rules on the other may also be telling us that this is so.
The situation of crossing from one theory to another as the scale changes is the situation we're in at the moment, some of the more interesting unanswered questions are in areas where the scales overlap.

Normally quantum effects only happen at the very small scale, and normally gravitation is such a weak force that it is normally only measurable on large scales, where big masses are in play.

Interestingly, there are situations where there are overlaps, one is with the proposed quantum black holes, since the (GR) theory of how black holes behave (which fits the behavior of some observed very heavy objects) don't actually set a lower limit to their mass (once they are somehow created), so it's (GR) theoretically possible to have a black hole with a mass of a few protons. The thing is that the radius of this black hole as defined by GR is so miniscule that the quantum uncertainly of posision of those protons would be enough to move the proton out of the gravity of the black hole which seems to be a contradiction with GR.

I'm actually mainly mentioning this because I don't think it's really possible to defined seperate realms for the two theories and expect no areas of overlap where they will contradict each other, so for an explanaion that involves "everything" something other than both, while contradicting neither in their respective realms, is required.
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Old 07-April-2008, 01:36 AM
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I'm actually mainly mentioning this because I don't think it's really possible to defined seperate realms for the two theories and expect no areas of overlap where they will contradict each other, so for an explanaion that involves "everything" something other than both, while contradicting neither in their respective realms, is required.
Indeed, I feel that too much is made of the issue of "contradiction", when in fact each theory loses applicabillity in some regime. It makes no real difference if the two theories contradict or agree in the realm of overlap, it only matters if either or both have left their realm of applicability. They could both agree and both be inaccurate, or they could disagree and both be way off, or disagree and have one continue to apply when the other breaks down. The real issue is, does any theory apply in all situations and at all scales? Why would we think that they would?
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Old 07-April-2008, 03:43 AM
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BTW, this is an interesting quote, maybe even on topic I looked around, and some webpages say it is unsourced, others say it appears in Carl Seelig's book Albert Einstein. Does anybody know the context in that book, if it does appear there?
I'm afraid I'm in the same boat as you. I've heard it said that he said it and seen it quoted on numerous websites, but have been unable to pinpoint a definative source.

I've also heard that he used to walk around with a mathematician, and when forming his ideas out-loud he would look to him to see if they were okay as far as the mathematics went.

But, I feel, like all great people that come and go, we are left with a string of quotes and stories that may or may not be entirely factual in their origins. Gone a bit quantum there!
Samuel Clemens (Mark Twain) is another who has hundreds of quotes attributed to him, but some are no doubt not entirely true.

Then again, to generate such an interest in what they did or did not say must - I hope - show they had something worth saying in the first place.
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Old 17-May-2008, 02:51 PM
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Hello, High Brow Group, Fading Star,Ivan Viehof, Ken G and fellow Unification Theory. afficionado`s et al,
The stumbling block to Unified Theory is Gravity. The gravity that we experience may just be a minisule accumulation of residual Gravity that has escaped from Nano Event Horizons, not unlike Hawkings Hawking Radiation.

In this event their surely must exist super quark cores possessing the balance of nano event horizon bound gravitational well. Also, Inner Space may be an infinite quantum effect. (an effect of simply looking) .

The writer hypothesised that there may only be one particle, the Quantom. A particle of infinitesmal mass that travels at absolute velocity, stopping momentarily at every point in the Universe. The short stops, generate quantom dwells, from which you and I, and everything else are made from.
In the event that the Quantom is observed, by an observer made from Quantom Dwells, the Quantom, has already been, gone come back and has set out again on its Universal travels.

Kevin Wilson
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Old 21-May-2008, 07:48 PM
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Hello, High Brow Group, Fading Star,Ivan Viehof, Ken G and fellow Unification Theory. afficionado`s et al,
The stumbling block to Unified Theory is Gravity. The gravity that we experience may just be a minisule accumulation of residual Gravity that has escaped from Nano Event Horizons, not unlike Hawkings Hawking Radiation.

In this event their surely must exist super quark cores possessing the balance of nano event horizon bound gravitational well. Also, Inner Space may be an infinite quantum effect. (an effect of simply looking) .

The writer hypothesised that there may only be one particle, the Quantom. A particle of infinitesmal mass that travels at absolute velocity, stopping momentarily at every point in the Universe. The short stops, generate quantom dwells, from which you and I, and everything else are made from.
In the event that the Quantom is observed, by an observer made from Quantom Dwells, the Quantom, has already been, gone come back and has set out again on its Universal travels.

Kevin Wilson


Ok, This time I disagree. Pete
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Old 21-May-2008, 09:01 PM
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Hello, High Brow Group, Fading Star,Ivan Viehof, Ken G and fellow Unification Theory. afficionado`s et al,
The stumbling block to Unified Theory is Gravity. The gravity that we experience may just be a minisule accumulation of residual Gravity that has escaped from Nano Event Horizons, not unlike Hawkings Hawking Radiation.

In this event their surely must exist super quark cores possessing the balance of nano event horizon bound gravitational well. Also, Inner Space may be an infinite quantum effect. (an effect of simply looking) .

The writer hypothesised that there may only be one particle, the Quantom. A particle of infinitesmal mass that travels at absolute velocity, stopping momentarily at every point in the Universe. The short stops, generate quantom dwells, from which you and I, and everything else are made from.
In the event that the Quantom is observed, by an observer made from Quantom Dwells, the Quantom, has already been, gone come back and has set out again on its Universal travels.

Kevin Wilson
I stumbled on this thread exedently... Now i got a headache.

Going to sleep. Goodnight.
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Old 24-May-2008, 06:49 AM
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I was watching a program on tv where a few scientists, including Prof. Hawkins, believed that a unified theory was not far away.
That's Hawking.

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But considering the differences in the structure of QM and GR, I was left wondering if this was actually attainable.
Not only do I think it is attainable, I think it is reasonable to argue that it has already been done. String theory is a quantum theory, but it wholly includes general relativity, which is not a quantum theory. That is one of the primary reasons that string theory is so popular amongst theoreticians as a candidate "theory of everything". Of course, the details of making general relativity quantized remain elusive. But if it were truly impossible, how could this be?
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Old 24-May-2008, 12:03 PM
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Our situation is actually worse.
We're living in a universe where all we can figure out is that if we look at in at one scale it behaves like apples.
Amazingly like apples, every test we've made on that scale points to apples.
Unfortunately on another scale it acts like oranges.
Amazingly like oranges, every test we've made on that scale points to oranges.
I would not use the words "worse" and "unfortunately".

It can be well argued that the greatest achievement, the what-would-you-take-on-a-desert-island piece of information about Physics, is the understanding that a physical system behaves differently depending the scale (length, time, energy, etc.).

For example, take a glass of water.
If you look at single molecule, you have three nuclei and a bunch of electrons around them; to figure out how it behaves you use Quantum Mechanics.
If you look at a greater length-scale, you see a bunch of molecules, weakly interacting with each other; you can use Classical Electrodynamics with some quantum corrections to figure out how each molecules moves, without bothering about the exact configuration of the electrons in the molecules.
At an even greater length-scale, you see lot and lots of molecules; in this case you can use Statistical Mechanics and forget about the trajectories of the single molecules, and end work out stuff like the temperature of the water.
And when you finally decide to drink the water, you can use classical Fluid Mechanics (where water is a continuum, instead of being composed of discrete particles) to work out how the water will flow into your mouth.
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Old 14-July-2008, 12:09 AM
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Zephir's ATM hijack posts have been moved here.
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